Villain is a passive 14/8.
Full Tilt No-Limit Hold'em, $4.00 BB (7 handed) - Full Tilt Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com
Button ($455)SB ($443.20)
BB ($849.70)
UTG ($400)
MP1 ($1187.70)
Hero (MP2) ($422.20)
CO ($400)
Preflop: Hero is MP2 with J
, K
2 folds, Hero bets $12, CO calls $12, Button calls $12, 2 folds
Flop: ($42) 6
, K
, 6
(3 players)Hero bets $26, 1 fold, Button calls $26
[seems standard]
Turn: ($94) 8
(2 players)Hero checks, Button checks
[At this point, it seems like a way ahead / way behind situation, as I don't see a nitty villain having a worse kicker. So the question is, does he have enough draws for me to bet? I'm pretty indifferent in this case between a bet and a check]
River: ($94) 4
(2 players)Hero checks, Button bets $40, Hero calls $40
[I'll bet a lot of times, but I didn't see this particular villain calling with worse when checked to. ie I think he folds TT. He bets (and he probably isn't value betting his TT), but I have to call...]
Total pot: $174 | Rake: $3
Main pot: $174 between Button and Hero, won by Hero
Results:
Button had J
, Q
(one pair, sixes).Hero had J
, K
(two pair, Kings and sixes).Outcome: Hero won $171
So I'm thinking to myself, how can you possibly float when I bet into TWO people holding a hand that has zero equity vs my value range? At least have an Ace, a backdoor flush draw, decent pocket pair, or something! anything! It's not like my cbet is 80% and I'm a spew monkey.
My post on losing regs coming soon...





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